what should the nurse do to prevent infection when finished using an accessed vad
Exam (elaborations)
Pharmacology Exam NUR 3028 WITH CORRECTED ANSWERS 2020
Pharmacology Exam: RN 1. Which is the smallest? a. 0.0001 g = .ane mg b. 0.01 mg = 10 mg?? c. 0.1 g = 100 mg d. 10 mg two. The provider ordered a heparin bolus of 5,000 units IV followed by a heparin baste at ane,000 units per hour. The standard mixture of heparin is 25,000 units/500 ml of D5W. At what rate in milliliters per hour should the pump be fix? a. 15 mL/hr b. 20 mL/hr c. 25 mL/hr d. xxx mL/hr three. The nurse reviews the patient's drug history prior to giving 0900 meds and asks the patient almost medication allergies. The patient reports that clindamycin (Cleocin®) causes an angry-looking cherry rash. Since this is one of the medications the nurse was scheduled to give this patient, the nurse should: a. telephone call the provider, report this patient's argument, and inquire for new orders. b. filibuster the administration of this medication until the provider makes rounds. c. give the medication, because something else might have caused the rash. d. give the medication with diphenhydramine (Benadryl®). iv. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan®) 4 mg/kg per day po has been ordered. The patient weighs 154 lbs. How many milligrams should exist given each mean solar day? a. 100 mg b. 120 mg c. 240 mg d. 280 mg 5. Digoxin (Lanoxin®) 0.25 mg is ordered. Digoxin (Lanoxin®) is available as 0.125 mg per tablet. How many tablets should be administered? a. ½ tablet b. 1 tablet c. 1½ tablets d. ii tablets vi. Infection prevention is a primary focus when caring for a patient with a central vascular access device (VAD), especially if the patient has cancer or is otherwise immunocompromised. What should the nurse exercise to forestall infection when finshed using an accessed VAD? a. Clench the extension tubing; encompass the open up tubing finish with a sterile 4x4 gauze pad. b. Clamp the extension tubing; leave its distal end uncovered. c. Flush the VAD with an antibiotic; cover the open tubing with a gauze pad. d. Flush the VAD with normal saline and heparin; remove the access needle. 7. The nurse has an adult patient with bilateral ear infections and the provider has prescribed Cortisporin Otic® 3 drops into each ear q 6-eight h x 7 days. What should the nurse recollect about giving this medication? a. No special instructions are needed. b. Pull the pinna down and back. c. Pull the pinna upward and back. d. Terminate the medication when the patient feels better. 8. _________________ is the term used for an unwanted negative response, predictable or unpredictable, to any medication given for therapeutic, diagnostic, or prophylactic reasons. a. Adverse drug reaction b. Anaphylaxis c. Side effect d. Toxicology 9. A provider order states, "Meperidine (Demerol®) 45 mg, Atropine Sulfate (Atropine®) 0.3 mg IM now." The meperidine (Demerol®) comes in a pre-filled syringe containing 50 mg/mL, and the atropine sulfate (Atropine®) comes in a vial containing 400 mcg/mL. What is the total volume that the nurse will be injecting? a. 0.78 mL b. 1 mL c. one.65 mL d. 2.13 mL 10. Every bit long equally the patient is receiving intravenous heparin therapy, the nurse should ensure that which of the following drugs is available on the unit of measurement? a. Acetylcysteine b. Flumazenil c. Phytonadione d. Protamine sulfate xi. Cephalexin (Keflex®) has been ordered for an adult patient; 3 grams are to exist given over the next 24 hours, divided into 6 equally spaced doses. How many milligrams should exist in each dose? a. 300 mg b. 500 mg c. one thousand mg d. 2000 mg 12. The nurse has received an order for penicillin v potassium (Penicillin-VK®) suspension 0.75 g. The drug is available as 250 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters should be given? a. iii mL b. x mL c. 15 mL d. 20 mL xiii. A provider order has been received for MS 4 mg IV q4h prn. Within this club, what appears on The Joint Commission'southward Official "Practice Not Use" Listing? a. 4 b. MS c. prn d. q4h 14. The provider orders a bolus of 250 mL NS over 20 minutes. At what rate (mL/60 minutes) should the pump be set? a. 725 mL/hour b. 750 mL/hr c. 775 mL/hr d. 800 mL/hour 15. The nurse must give an IM injection to a 6-month-one-time child. The virtually appropriate site for this injection is the: a. deltoid muscle. b. dorsogluteal musculus. c. vastus lateralis musculus. d. ventrogluteal muscle. xvi. Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef®) 35 mg IM is ordered to treat inflammation. Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef®) is available as 250 mg/ten mL. How many milliliters should exist administered? a. 1 mL b. 1.4 mL c. 2 mL d. 2.six mL 17. A patient with deadline personality disorder is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol®). Which of the following laboratory results indicate that this patient is experiencing an adverse reaction to the medication? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) - 12 mg/dL b. Hemoglobin - fifteen g/dL c. Platelet count - 85,000 d. Potassium - 4.ii mEq/l 18. The patient would like to know why blood is existence fatigued before and subsequently his scheduled dose of gentamycin (Garamycin®). The nurse tells him that drawing these blood samples will: a. allow for medication aligning to ensure right dosing of this drug. b. let him to accomplish the correct drug level rapidly. c. prevent this drug'due south side effects. d. provide his provider with information about the kind of medication he should be taking. 19. A provider club is written for prochlorperazine (Compazine®) 7.five mg Four q 4 hrs prn N/5. Prochlorperazine (Compazine®) is available in a prefilled syringe labeled ten mg/two mL. How many milliliters should be given? a. 0.88 mL b. 1 mL c. 1.v mL d. 1.65 mL 20. A provider gild is written for insulin at iii units/hr; the premixed solution is composed of fifty units of insulin in 100 mL in normal saline. At which rate (mL/hr) should the infusion run? a. ii mL/hr b. 3 mL/60 minutes c. half-dozen mL/hr d. 12 mL/hour 21. A procainamide (Pronestyl®) baste is ordered for 2 mg/min. The standard mixture of procainamide (Pronestyl®) is 2 g in 500 mL. At what rate (mL/hour) should the IV pump be ready? a. 15 mL/60 minutes b. 22 mL/hr c. thirty mL/hr d. 38 mL/60 minutes 22. A provider society has been received for a dobutamine (Dobutrex®) baste at vii mcg/kg/min. The patient's weight is 220 lbs. How many milligrams per hour should be given? a. 32 mg/hr b. 38 mg/hr c. 42 mg/60 minutes d. 46 mg/hr 23. The patient is receiving lactated Ringer's solution via peripheral Iv and asks for pain medication. Prior to giving the medication, the nurse discovers that the site is cool and blanched, edematous with taut skin, and there is fluid leaking from the site. The patient reports that the area is tender and uncomfortable and that the IV pump keeps beeping. The nurse knows that this patient's IV site is likely displaying signs of: a. extravasation. b. infiltration. c. normality. d. phlebitis. 24. A provider lodge states, "Kanamycin (Kantrex®) 700 mg IM now." The kanamycin (Kantrex®) label states, "Add together 5 mL sterile H2o to one g kanamycin (Kantrex®); 0.5 g = 2 mL." How many milliliters should be given? a. ii.1 mL b. 2.v mL c. two.8 mL d. iii.2 mL 25. A regular insulin drip at 7 units/hour is ordered for a patient with DKA. The IV of chiliad mL NS contains 50 units of regular insulin. At what rate (mL/hr) should the infusion pump exist fix? a. 140 mL/hr b. 160 mL/hr c. 180 mL/60 minutes d. 200 mL/hr
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